国际货运代理专业英语试题集

国际货运代理专业英语试题集

Unit 1

1. The scope of freight forwarder’s service on behalf of consignees includes _____. (D) A. pack the goods for export

B. attend to foreign exchange transactions C. weigh and measure the goods

D. take delivery of the goods from the carrier

2. A ____ is able to attend to any of the procedural and documentary procedure on behalf of the consignor or consignee. (D)

A. shipper B. carrier C. ship’s owner D. freight forwarder

3. The scope of freight forwarder’s service on behalf of shipper includes_____. (D) A. always arrange warehousing of the goods

B. issue relevant documents to the carrier, such as FCR or FCT C. pursue claims against the carrier when the goods arrive D. book space with selected carrier

4. The carrier issue a Shipping Advice to inform the Notify Party about the cargo discharge point, number of packages and so on. (B)

5. The scope of freight forwarder’s service on behalf of exporter includes_____. (C) A. book space with selected consignor B. pay the freight to the consignee C. arrange export customs clearance D. arrange import customs clearance

6. The following services ______ are performed by the freight forwarder on behalf of the importer. (ABC)

A. monitor the movement of goods B. check all relevant documents

C. deliver the cleared goods to the consignee D. pursue claims against the exporter

7. The freight forwarder assists the consignee in pursuing claims against the ____ for loss of the goods or damage to them if necessary. (B)

A. shipper B. carrier C. receiver D. charterer

8. It is usually the ____ who issues relevant documents such as Forwarder’s Certificate of Receipt, Forwarder’s Certificate of Transport, etc. (C)

A. consignor B. consignee C. freight forwarder D. carrier

9. A freight forwarder shall take into account the route, the mode of transport and applicable regulations, if any, in the ______. (ABD)

A. country of export B. country of import C. country of transshipment D. transit countries

10. The freight forwarder takes delivery of the goods from the carrier and issues the Forwarder’s Certificate of Receipt. (B)

11. A freight forwarder will do the work of preparing shipping documents, arranging for shipping space and insurance and dealing with customs formalities, in return for a fee. (A)

12. The freight forwarder, on behalf of the____, has the right to deliver the cleared goods to the

consignee. (B)

A. exporter B. importer C. carrier D. consignor

Unit 2

1. A shipment of fresh egg is transported to the docks by an exporter on an FOB contract. The eggs are broken by a crane falling them as they are awaiting to be loaded on board. The ___ should be liable for the damage. (A)

A. seller B. buyer C. ship owner D. freight forwarder

2. 100 sewing machines under CIF shanghai are being shipped onto the ship and the rope breaks. The goods finish up at the bottom of the dock and divers are sent down. The recovery and repair of goods costs a great of money. The ___ should be responsible for the damage. (C) A. ship owner B. buyer C. seller D. freight forwarder

3. There are some similarities and differences between CIF and CIP. Which term to use only depends on the location of exporter. (B)

4. According to INCOTERMS 2000, which group of the following trade terms mean that the seller must contract for the carriage of the goods to the named port (or place ) of destination?____ (D) A. FOB/CFR/CIF B. FCA/CPT/CFR C. FOB/FCA/CIP D. CFR/CPT/CIF

5. Under the FOB term, the risk of loss or damage to the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer when goods pass the ship’s rail in the ____. (A)

A. port of shipment B. place of shipment C. port of destination D. place of destination

6. Under the CFR term, the seller must, in addition, pay the cost of carriage necessary to bring the goods to the ____ , when he delivers the goods to the carrier nominated by him. (D) A. named place B. named destination

C. any place D. named port of destination

7. According to INCOTERMS 2000, under which group of the following trade terms is the seller required to bear the risk of loss of or damage to the goods when the goods pass the ship’s rail ?(C) A. FCA/CFR/CIP B. FCA/CPT/CFR C. FOB/CFR/CIF D. CFR/CPT/CIF

8. When applying to CIF, the expression of ocean bill of lading freight is ____. (A) A. freight prepaid B. freight collect C. freight paid D. freight unpaid

9. Which of the following trade terms can be adopted supposing the shipment will be from Chengdu (Sichuan Province) to Hamburg? (CD)

A. CIF B. CFR C. FCA D. CPT

10. When the goods arrive at the port of destination, _____ issue an Arrival Notice to inform the Notify Party about the cargo discharge point and other information. (B) A. shipper B. carrier C. receiver D. ship owner

11. Under CIF or CIP, the seller procures insurance against his own risks of loss of or damage to the goods during the carriage. (B)

12. Under FCA, if delivery occurs at the seller’s premises, who is responsible for unloading the goods according to the contract of sale____. (B)

A. seller B. buyer C. carrier D. freight forwarder

Unit 3

1. According to UCP600, the terms “end” of a month in the letter of credit shall be construed as ____. (C)

A. from the 15th to the last day of the month B. from the 16th to the last day of the month C. from the 21st to the last day of the month D. from the 20th to the last day of the month

2. According to UCP600, the terms “second half” of a month in the letter of credit shall be construed as ____. (C)

A. from the 15th to the last day of the month B. from the 15th to the 31st of the month C. from the 16th to the last day of the month D. from the 16th to the 31st of the month

3. Time of shipment refers to the time limit for loading the goods on board the vessel at the port of shipment. (A)

4. Which of the following words applying to any date or period in the credit referring to shipment will be understood to include the date mentioned? _____ (ABCD) A. until B. from C. to D. till

5. According to UCP600, the terms “beginning” of a month in the letter of credit shall be construed as ____. (C)

A. from the 1st to the last day of the month B. from the 1st to the 5th of the month C. from the 1st to the10th of the month D. from the 1st to the 15th of the month

6. Which of the following expressions are not suitable for stipulating the time for shipment? (ABCD)

A. quick B. immediately

C. prompt D. as soon as possible

7. If there is only an expiry date in the letter of credit without a shipment date, the expiry date is regarded as the latest shipment date. (A)

8. Expressions such as “prompt”, “immediately”, and the like can be used as a way of stipulating time of shipment. (B)

9. If the expiry date or presentation period falls on a day when the bank is closed, then it should be extended to the first following day on which such bank is open. (A)

10. If the stipulated shipment date is “on May 12, 2008”, which is it wrong for the seller to ship the goods____?

A. any time before on May 12, 2008 B. any time after on May 12, 2008 C. only on May 12, 2008

D. five days before or five days after May 12, 2008

11. When “on or about May 12, 2008” is used to stipulate the time for shipment, when can the seller ship the goods_____.

A. on May 6, 2008 B. on May 17, 2008

C. only on May 12, 2008 D. on May 14, 2008

Unit 4

1. Which of the following risks are covered by the All Risks coverage of PICC Ocean Marine Cargo Clauses.____? (D)

A. war and fire B. strike and delay

C. aflatoxin and on deck D. heavy weather and fire

2. Which of the following coverage does not cover partial loss or damage resulting from natural calamities? ____ (BC)

A.WA B.FPA

C. Institute Cargo Clause (B) D. Institute Cargo Clause (C)

3. Institute Cargo Clause (C) does not cover risks of war, strike, but covers loss of or damage to cargo caused by earthquake. (B)

4. The marine cargo insurance premium rates may vary depending on factors such as ____. (ABCD)

A. type of the goods B. value of the goods C. mode of transport D. type of risks covered

5. Which of the following coverage does not cover total loss or damage resulting from natural calamities? ____ (D)

A.WA B.FPA

C. Institute Cargo Clause (B) D. Institute Cargo Clause (C)

6. The All Risks of PICC Ocean Marine Cargo Clause does not cover risks of war and special additional risks but cover the general additional risks. (A)

7. Which of the following coverage cover general average and salvage charges? ____ (ABCD) A.WA B.FPA

C. All Risks D. Institute Cargo Clause (A)

8. Which of the following coverage usually cover partial loss or damage resulting from natural calamities? ____ (ACD)

A.WA B.FPA

C. Institute Cargo Clause (B) D. Institute Cargo Clause (A) 9. WPA is one of the ____. (A)

A. basic risks B. additional risks

C. special additional risks D. general additional risks

10. Partial loss or damage is recoverable from the insurer resulting from natural calamities. (B) 11. _____ is described in the policy as fortuitous partial loss, that is, loss of goods that have suffered from accident or mishap during transportation, either partially or totally. (C) A. average B. with average C. particular average D. general average

12. Which of the following risks is not covered by the All Risks coverage of marine cargo transportation insurance? ____ (D)

A. marine perils B. stranding C. pilferage D. inherent vice

13. Insurance policy is a contract between an insurance company and an insurance broker. (B)

14. Insurance policy is an evidence of insurance contract issued by the insurer to the underwriter. (B)

15. The Free from Particular Average of marine cargo transportation insurance covers risks of ____. (BC)

A. riots and civil disturbance B. total loss caused natural calamities C. general average D. delay of goods

16. Partial losses incurred as a result of specific casualties such as _____ are covered in FPA. (ACD)

A. burning of the vessel B. earthquake C. stranding D. sinking

17. Institute cargo clause (B) covers loss and damage to cargo caused by _____. A. volcanic eruption B. tsunami

C. failure to delivery D. shortage risks

18. Institute Cargo Clause (C) covers loss or damage to cargo caused by _____. (D) A. earthquake B. volcanic eruption C. lighting D. sinking of vessel

19. General average and salvage charges are not covered in FPA coverage. (B) 20. Which of the following risks belong to special additional risks_____? (ABCD) A. riots and civil disturbance B. war and strike C. rejection and on deck D. delay of goods

Unit 5

1. The booking note is issued by the ____ requesting allocation of shipment space. (C) A. carrier to the agent B. carrier to the shipper C. shipper to the carrier D. carrier to consignee

2. AN NVOCC is a (n) ____ who operates regular scheduled services. (B) A. shipper B. carrier C. receiver D. charterer 3. AN NVOCC usually operates vessel to provide sea transportation. (B)

4. To the actual shipper, the NVOCC is a ____ while to the actual carrier, he is a ___. (B) A. actual carrier……carrier B. carrier……shipper C. shipper……carrier D. carrier……consignee

5. The ____ is issued by the shipper to the carrier requesting allocation of shipment space. (C) A. cargo manifest B. mate’s receipt C. booking note D. delivery order

6. Which of the following documents can be issued by a carrier _____? (ABD) A. bill of lading B. mate’s receipt C. booking note D. delivery order

7. Shipping note is also called booking note and shipping order. (B)

8. The carrier issues a Shipping Advice to inform the notify party about the cargo discharge point, number of packages and so on. (B)

9. When the goods arrives at the port of destination, the_____ issues an Arrival Notice informing the notify party of the cargo discharge point and other information. (B) A. shipper B. carrier C. receiver D. consignee 10. A cargo manifest provides information regarding cargo on board. (A)

11. A delivery order is issued by the carrier to enable the shipper to load the cargo. (B) 12. All bills of lading should be signed either the___ or____. (D) A. notify party……carrier B. carrier……shipper C. consignor……consignee D. carrier……his agent

13. A booking note is a commitment on the part of the shipper to ship the goods and serves as the basis for the preparation of the bill of lading. (A)

14. A document signed by the Chief Office acknowledging the receipt of cargo on board ship, and later exchanged for a B/L is called______. (B)

A. sea waybill B. mate’s receipt C. booking note D. delivery order

15. Which of the following descriptions are true about NVOCC_____? (ACD) A. he operates a regular scheduled service B. he owns or operates the vessel

C. he provides a useful service by providing groupage or consolidation services D. he assumes double roles relationship with carrier and shipper

Unit 6

1. Documentary credit means payment against____ instead of against______. (D) A. goods……documents B. acceptance……confirmation C. documents……acceptance D. documents……goods

2. Detailed provisions dealing with the operation of documentary credit can be found in_____. (B) A. ICC B.UCP C. INCOTERMS D. CMR convention 3. In a revocable credit, it is the____ who has the right to revoke the credit. (A) A. buyer B. seller C. advising bank D. issuing bank

4. The____ bank should ensure that the seller’s documents are drawn up in accordance with the credit terms before such documents are paid for and forwards to the____ bank for final reimbursement. (C)

A. issuing……negotiating B. advising……paying C. negotiating……issuing D. paying……advising

5. An irrevocable confirmed letter of credit ranks the first credit rating in payment terms. (A) 6. In irrevocable letter of credit, the seller can receive his payment once he finishes the shipment of contract goods. (B)

7. The UCP600 published by the ICC contains detailed provisions dealing with the operations of sales contract. (B)

8. The banks on the buyer’s side on L/C arrangement are____. (AD) A. issuing bank B. advising bank C. negotiating bank D. paying bank

9. _____ published by the ICC contains detailed provisions dealing with the operation of documentary credit. (B)

A. Hague Rules B. UCP600 C. Incoterms2000 D. CMR convention

10. In the practice of L/C transaction, the buyer is not required to pay for the goods until the arrival of the relevant____. (C)

A. B/L B. invoice C. documents stipulated by L/C D. L/C

11. According to documentary credit, the____, on receipt of letter of credit, will have to prepare

shipment of the contract goods within the delivery date. (D) A. agent B. customer C. buyer D. seller

12. Not all the documentary credits are operated through banks. (B)

13. Once shipment of the goods is finished, the seller should present all the documents to the negotiating bank for payment under the terms of the credit. (A)

14. The negotiating bank and issuing bank perform the same function in the documentary credit. (B)

15. Which of the following statements are true about documentary credit_____? (ABCD) A. documentary credit means payment against document instead of against goods B. all the documentary credits are operated through banks

C. the buyers is not required to pay for the goods until the arrival of the relevant shipping documents

D. the documents transfer title to the goods

Unit 7

1. Which of the following costs are payable by the charterer under a time charter party. (C) A. capital cost and demurrage B. hull insurance and port charges C. port charges and bunker costs D. wages of crew and hull insurance 2. The port charge are payable by the ship-owner during the period of voyage chart. (A) 3. Laytime and demurrage clauses normally appeared in the____ Charter Party. (B) A. time B. voyage C. bareboat D.TCT

4. Which of the following costs are payable by the ship-owner under a time charter party? (C) A. bunker costs B. loading costs C. hull insurance D. port charges

5. TCT means that the charterer employs a vessel on the basis of____ for one or two voyages. (A) A. time chartering B. voyage chartering C. bareboat chartering D.COA 6. Under voyage chartering the charterer is liable for costs directly connected with the use of the vessel. (B)

7. In TCT chartering, the roles and responsibilities of charterer and ship-owner are identical to those assumed for time chartering. (A)

8. In which of the following chartering, the vessel is completely put at the disposal of the charterer without any crew______. (C)

A. time B. voyage C. bareboat D.TCT

9. Which of the following standard charter party forms are used in a time charter______? (BD) A. GENCON B. NYPE C. BARECON D. BALTIME

10. Which of the following standard charter party forms are used in a voyage charter______? (B) A. NYPE B.GENCON C. BARECON D. BALTIME

11. Under voyage chartering, the ship-owner pays for______. (ABCD) A. bunker fuel supply B. costs of vessel C. special voyage insurance D. wages of crew

12. The person who enters into a voyage chartering with charterer is called_____. (A)

A. ship owner B. carrier C. agent D. broker

13. Bareboat chartering or demise chartering provides a vessel to a charterer and the ship-owner

will_____ all responsibilities and rights in respect of his vessel to the charterer during chartering. (C)

A. hold B. keep C. pass on D. undertaker

14. The term under which the ship-owner is not responsible for loading and unloading but for stowage and trimming costs is_____. (D)

A. FOBST B. FIOST C. FIOS D. FIO

15. The term under which the ship-owner is not responsible for loading but for unloading stowage and trimming costs is_____. (A)

A. F.I. B. FIOST C. F.O. D. FIO

16. The term under which the ship-owner is not responsible for unloading but for loading stowage and trimming costs is_____. (C)

A. F.I. B. FIOST C. F.O. D. FIO

17. A voyage charter party mainly contains the_____ clauses. (ABCD)

A. payment of freight B. loading and discharging ports C. dispatch and demurrage D. time for loading and unloading 18. A time charter party mainly contains the_____ clauses. (ABCD) A. charter period B. payment of hire

C. delivery and redelivery D. withdrawal of vessel 19. The bunker is payable by the charterer under____. (BC) A. voyage chartering B. time chartering

C. bareboat chartering D. contract of affreightment

Unit 8-9

1. A negotiable bill of lading can be transferred by _____. (C)

A. negotiation B. amendment C. endorsement D. selling

2. When the sales contract stipulates “transshipment prohibited”, the carrier should issue a____. (A)

A. direct B/L B. through B/L

C. straight B/L D. transshipment B/L

3. It is important that the bill of lading is available at port of____ before the goods arrive or at the same time. (D)

A. shipment B. departure C. loading D. destination

4. If the B/L states that the goods were shipped “in apparent good order and condition” then any damage must have occurred after loading on board. (A) 5. Marine bill of lading are used primarily in_____. (B)

A. carriage of goods by air B. carriage of goods by sea C. road transport D. railway transportation

6. A bill of lading, serving as document of title to the goods, transfers the title to the shipped goods from the consignor to the buyer. (A)

7. When____ being submitted to the carrier at port of destination, the goods can be exchanged for. (B)

A. all of the original Bs/L B. one of the original Bs/L C. all of the copy Bs/L D. one of the copy Bs/L

8. Which of the following Bs/L bear an indication about apparent order and condition of the goods received_____? (C)

A. shipped B/L B. claused B/L C. clean B/L D. foul B/L

9. _____ cover shipment from or to ports involving transport by two or more shipping or Railways Company. (B)

A. shipped Bs/L B. through Bs/L C. straight Bs/L D. direct Bs/L

10. If the goods haven’t been actually loaded on board, however, at the shipper’s request, the carrier or his agent may issue a bill of lading in advance, which is_____. (C) A. anti-date Bs/L B. post-date Bs/L C. advanced Bs/L D. direct Bs/L

11. Which of the following statements are true about order bill of lading____? (ACD) A. they are issued by carriers to the order of shipper or consignee

B. the carrier will deliver the goods at the port of destination solely to the named consignee C. an order bill of lading is a negotiable document

D. the carrier can deliver the goods to any person designated by the named consignee

12. Which of the following statements are not true about straight bills of lading____? (ACD) A. they can be transferred to third party

B. delivery of goods can only be taken by the named consignee C. they are a negotiable document D. they are not document of title

13. What are the advantages of electronic delivery of bill of lading____? (ABCD) A. it reduces the cycle time for the forwarding and presentation of documents B. it reduces the costs related to manual document preparation

C. it allows a buyer to take title to the goods once they have arrived at port

D. an easy-to use online bill of lading generator will save time and provide the documents instantly

14. Which of the following statements are true about bills of lading____? (BC) A. when one of the originals being surrender to the carrier, the others are still valid B. the originals are marked as “original” on their face

C. the original bills of lading are proof of ownership of goods D. usually, only one original bill of lading is issued

15. Which of the following statements is unlikely to be found on a foul bill of lading____? (ABC) A. insufficient packing B. missing safety seal C. two cartons short

D. apparent good order and condition

Unit 10

1. The costs of providing shipping services consist of_____. (A)

A. fixed and variable costs B. raw materials and production costs C. repair and maintenance expenses D. insurance and administrative costs

2. When determining the freight rate, the age-old principle of “what the traffic can bear” is increasingly substituted by the _____ principle nowadays. (C)

A. open market rate B. surcharges C. service cost D. stowage factor 3. Which of the following do fixed costs involve? _____. (ACD)

A. costs of officer and crew B. loading and unloading costs C. repair and maintenance expenses D. administrative costs

4. When determining the freight rate, which factors should be taken into account_____? (ABC) A. adjustment factors B. stowage factors C. profit factor D. market factors

5. Which of the following do variable costs involve? _____. (ABD)

A. port charge B. loading and unloading costs C. repair and maintenance expenses D. costs of fuel

6. _____refers to the average number of cubic meters required to stow one ton of a commodity. (B)

A. adjustment factors B. stowage factors C. profit factor D. market factors

7. Which of the following statements are true about liner freight rates_____? (CD) A. they fluctuate with market conditions of supply and demand

B. liner freight rates are fixed by shipping conference and tramp service C. they are more related to the costs of operation

D. freight forwarders are mainly concerned with liner freight rates 8. Which of the following statements are true _____? (BC)

A. tramp rates do not fluctuate with market conditions of supply and demand B. liner freight rates remains comparatively steady over a period of time C. fixed costs do not include fuel of cost

D. ocean freight rates may be broadly divided into container rates and liner freight rates

Unit 11

1. Which of the following is the written permission granted by the Customs to allow the export goods to be loaded on board_____? (B)

A. entry inwards B. entry outwards

C. export license D. outward export permit

2. Which of the following is the written permission granted by the Customs to allow the import goods to be unloaded on board_____? (A)

A. Entry Inwards B. Entry Outwards

C. Export License D. outward export permit

3. Which of the following is the written permission granted by the Customs to allow to bring any imports and loaded exports_____? (D)

A. Entry Inwards B. Entry Outwards C. Export License D. Customs clearance

4. Export goods can be loaded on to the vessel before the necessary permit is given by the customs authorities. (B)

5. A vessel which has loaded exports can leave the port only when port clearance is granted by the customs authorities. (A)

6. Which of the following statements are true about departure formalities_____? (ABD) A. application for port clearance has to be made before the intended departure B. application for port clearance has to be accompanied by the Export Manifest C. export goods can be loaded on to the vessel before Entry Outwards given

D. A vessel which has loaded exports can leave the port only when port clearance is granted by the customs authorities.

7. Which of the following statements are true about customs clearance_____? (CD) A. import cargo can be landed at any port

B. the customs authorities only inspect the goods imported physically C. the customs authorities have powers to examine the goods imported

D. before permission is given to remove the goods out of customs control, the owner or agent is required to submit a bill of entry

Unit 12

1. The CMR convention has been ratified by America. (B)

2. The responsible period of the carrier for the loss of or damage to the cargo as well as delay in delivery under CMR convention is between_____. (D) A. the port to the port B. the door to the door C. the rail to the rail

D. the time the carrier taking over the goods and time of delivery

3. The carrier is relieved of liability under CMR convention if the loss or damage or delay is due to____. (ABC)

A. any wrongful act of consignor B. inherent vice of goods

C. circumstances which he could not avoid D. defective condition of the vehicle by him

4. The carrier is responsible for liability under CMR convention if the loss or damage or delay is due to____. (BCD)

A. loss of or damage to goods occurring before he takes over the goods B. loss of or damage to goods occurring after he takes over the goods

C. the acts and omission of his agent or servant he makes use D. defective condition of the vehicle by him in order to perform the carriage

5. Road transport in the countries outsides Europe is governed by to a great extent____. (C) A. the CMR convention B. international laws C. national laws and ordinances D. the same rules

6. The carrier is relieved of liability under CMR convention if the loss or damage or delay is due to____. (C)

A. any wrongful act of his agent B. neglect of the carrier

C. loss of or damage to goods occurring before he takes over the goods D. defective condition of the vehicle by him

7. Under CMR convention, the carrier is responsible for _____. (AD) A. any wrongful act or neglect of his agent B. the acts and omission of consignor

C. unavoidable circumstances and unpreventable consequence

D. defective condition of the vehicle by him

8. Which of the following statements are true about CMR convention_____? (BCD)

A. it is the convention on contract for international carriage of goods by sea B. it was adopted in 1956

C. it generally governs international transport of goods by road D. it has been ratified only by countries in Europe

Unit 13

1. A container with several consignments from various shippers is normally called____. (A) A. LCL B. FCL C. DOOR D. CFS

2. Which of the following modes of container transport may not be FCL/FCL_____? (D) A.CY/CY B. DOOR/DOOR C. DOOR/CY D. CFS/CFS

3. In the case of LCL, containers are usually packed under the supervision of the intermodal transport operator and unpacked in the country of destination. (A)

4. A consolidator provides door to door and distribution services which are not usually provided by a shipping line. (A)

5. The freight forwarder as consolidator will provide the service in his own name and issue____. (B)

A. master bill of lading B. house bill of lading C. direct bill of lading D. through bill of lading 6. Consolidation can benefit_____. (ABCD)

A. national economy B. shipper C. carrier D. forwarder

7. LCL/LCL denotes the container service where the shipper is responsible for stuffing and the carrier is responsible for stripping. (B)

8. In the case of LCL, containers are usually packed under the supervision of the intermodal transport operator and unpacked in the country of destination. (A) 9. In what way can consolidation benefit a carrier____? (ABCD)

A. the carrier does not need to handle individual consignments B. the carrier can save related expenditure

C. the carrier does not have to take risk of freight payments D. it can save time and paperwork

Unit 14

1. The operator of multimodal transport will issue_____ during the whole carriage. (D) A. master bill of lading B. house bill of lading C. direct bill of lading D. through bill of lading

2. Mini-bridge involves the movement of container under____ issued by a carrier. (D) A. master bill of lading B. house bill of lading C. direct bill of lading D. through bill of lading

3. Piggyback is a system of unitized multimodal land transport by ____. (B) A. road and sea B. road and rail C. road and air D. road and road

4. _____is an innovation in the intermodal transport system involving the use of rail and ocean

transport. (C)

A. sea/air B. mini-bridge C. sea train D. piggyback 5. Multimodal transport has the following advantage_____? (ABCDE) A. minimizing time loss at transshipment points B. providing faster transit of goods

C. saving costs and reducing the burden of documentation and formalities D. establishing only one agency to deal with E. reducing cost of exports

6. in terms of minimizing time loss at transshipment points, multimodal transport can____. (ABCD)

A. minimize time loss B. minimize damage to the goods C. reduce the risk of loss D. cut down pilferage to cargo

7. Multimodal transport provides faster transit of goods by reducing the disadvantages of distance from markets and the tying-up of capital. (A)

8. Multimodal transport B/L is applicable to transport by_____. (D)

A. two or more shipping companies B. two or more railway companies

C. two or more airline companies D. two or more transport means including by sea

Unit 15

1. In logistical operation, information from and about customers flows through the enterprise in the form of _____. (ABC)

A. orders B. sale activity C. forecast D. storage

2. The objective in inventory strategy is to achieve desired customer service with the minimum inventory commitment. (A)

3. Logistics is the process of planning, implementing and controlling the efficient, effective flow and storage of______ from point of origin to the point of consumption for the purpose of conforming to customer requirements. (BCD)

A. facility B. goods C. services D. information

4. For a supply chain to realize the maximum strategic benefit of logistics, the full range of functional work must be_____. (C)

A. managed B. transported C. integrated D. supplied 5. Which of the following belong to logistics activities______? (ABCD) A. facility network B. transportation C. warehousing D. inventory

6. From logistical system viewpoint, three factors are fundamental to transportation performance, these are_____. (ABC)

A. consistency B. cost C. speed D. warehousing

7. Logistics should be managed as an integrated effort to achieve customer satisfaction at____. (D) A. the highest profit B. the lowest profit C. the highest total cost D. the lowest total cost

8. Logistics operations can be divided into the following areas_____? (ACD)

A. marketing distribution B. sales promotion C. manufacturing support D. procurement

9. The movement of finished products to customers is procurement. (B)

Unit 17

1. E-commerce involves exchange among ____. (ABC)

A. customers B. vendors C. business partner D. corporate infrastructure

2. Successful e-business are those that recognize the needs of their target audiences and match those needs with relevant____. (D)

A. background B. foreground C. content D. context 3. E-commerce involves exchange between_____. (BCD) A. manufacturer and customer B. supplier and manufacturer

C. customers and sale representatives D. shipment provider and distributors

4. E-business not only involves exchanges among customers, business partners and the vendor, but also includes operations that handled within the business itself. (A)

5. With the development of the Internet economy, the brick-and-mortar segments of all business will become obsolete. (B)

6. E-commerce and E-business have increased the speed and ease of business transactions and, as result, competition is mild. (B)

7. Real-time trading in foreign markets and instantaneous currency conversion will become possible in the near future. (B)

Unit 19-20

1. In air cargo transportation, _____ are rates which are applicable to named type of air cargo. (D) A. general cargo rates B. class rates

C. bulk unitization rates D. specific commodity rates

2. General cargo rates are normally higher than specific commodity rates in air cargo transportation. (A)

3. The air waybill number is the identification of each consignment and comprises three parts___. (ABD)

A. the main portion identifying the consignment B. a three-digit prefix identifying the carrier C. the main portion identifying the carrier

D. the last check digit for accounting and security purposes 4. The rate of FAK refers to____. (B)

A. freight for class B. freight of all kinds C. weight/measure rate D. all inclusive rate

5. _____ are rates offered only to those who prepare to sign a contract to give the airline a minimum annual tonnage. (A)

A. contract FAK rates B. class rates

C. minimum rates D. specific commodity rates

6. In air cargo transportation rates, class rates are based on_____, but offer a discount to some

goods or charge surcharges from many more commodities. (A) A. general cargo rates B. minimum rates

C. contract FAK rates D. specific commodity rates

7. _____ offer low rates only given for freight which is prepackaged into an aircraft ULD that can be loaded directly into the aircraft. (C)

A. general cargo rates B. class rates

C. bulk unitization rates D. contract FAK rates

8. An AWB is called a____ if the air carrier is not specified in the air waybill. (A) A. neutral AWB B. house AWB C. master AWB D. substitute AWB 9. An air waybill can be used for_____. (ABCD)

A. a contract for transportation B. a receipt and delivery of the shipment C. freight bill calculation D. customs declaration 10. A substitute AWB is used____. (ABCD)

A. when the original AWB is missing

B. when re-forwarding cargo which over-carried or wrongly off-loaded C. when transit goods waiting is without original AWB D. when a disposal is received for transit goods from the originating station

11. In air cargo transportation, _____ are rates which are applicable to any type of commodity, without the restriction of hazardous consignment size. (A) A. general cargo rates B. class rates

C. bulk unitization rates D. specific commodity rates

12. When a shipper can not be charged less than the appropriate rate of 4kg, even though his particular consignment may weigh less than this, this type or rate is called_____. (B) A. general cargo rates B. minimum rates

C. contract FAK rates D. specific commodity rates

13. Special commodity rates are always much lower than general cargo rates. (A) 14. Bulk unitization rates are always much lower than general cargo rates. (A)

15. The type of rates available in air freight markets can divided into 3 categories. (B)

Unit 21

1. Which of the following organizations is the largest non-governmental organization in the field of freight forwarding industry____? (B)

A. IATA B. FIATA C. MTO D. UIC

2. Which of the following is not belonged to the Advisory Body of FIATA____? (A) A. AFI B. ABDG C. ABIT D. ABVT 3. FIATA’s main objectives are____. (AB)

A. to unite the freight forwarding industry worldwide B. to assist with vocational training for freight forwarders C. to unite the transport industry worldwide

D. to safeguard the interests of the importers and exporters

4. FIATA has created several documents and forms, they are____. (ABCD) A. FWB B. FCR C. FWR D. FCT

5. Which of the following is belonged to the Advisory Body of FIATA____? (D)

A. AFI B. CAI C. MIT D. ABVT

6. FIATA is the largest non-governmental organization of air transportation acting on behalf of 40,000 forwarding firms. (B)

7. The main objectives of FIATA are____. (CD)

A. to bring forward the specific issues of regional concern and interest B. to report to its respective institute

C. to familiarize trade and industry and the public at large with the services given by freight forwarders

D. to represent, promote and protect the interests of the freight forwarding industry by participating as advisors meeting of international bodies