1.本试卷由四个部分组成。其中第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题。第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。共150分,共12页。
2.全部答案在答题卡上相应区域内完成,在本试卷上作答无效。选择题请使用2B铅笔填涂,非选择题请使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答。要求字体工整、笔迹清晰。
3.请在答题卡规定的地方填写好个人信息,并认真核对答题卡上所粘贴的条形码是否与本人的信息一致。 4.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后。你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分。满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the woman going to do?
A. Help the man. B. Take a bus. C. Get a camera. 2. What does the woman mean? A. She enjoys the town life. B. She likes the environment. C. She hates the noise at night. 3. What's happening to the man? A. He in caught in a traffic jam. B. He is having dinner with friends. C. He in waiting for the snow to stop.
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4. What in the man going to do?
A. Go on the Internet. B. Make .phone call. C. Take a train trip. 5. When does the conversation take place?
A. On Saturday. B. On Sunday. C. On Monday. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. What is the man going to do this summer?
A. Teach a course. B. Repair his house. C. Work at a hotel. 7. How will the man use the money?
A. To hire a gardener. B. To take a trip. C. To buy books. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. What food does Linda like?
A. Fish. B. Chicken C. Eggs. 9. What are the speakers going to do?
A. Cook dinner. B. Order dishes. C. Go shopping. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. Why does the woman make the call? A. To book a hotel room.
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B. To ask about the room service. C. To make change to .reservation. 11. When will the woman check in?
A. On August 15. B. On August 16. C. On August 23. 12. How much will the woman pay her room per night?
A. $ 179. B. $ 199. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Attending a party. B. Visiting Kingston. 14. What is Amy going to do in Ottawa?
A. Meet her friends. B. Visit her aunt. 15. Where doe Helen live?
A. In Ottawa. B. In Montreal. 16. Who may be David?
A. Helen' s husband. B. Jack's friend. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. What is John's book Travels win Charley about? A. Cities around the US. B. Traveling around the US.
C. People with troubles and problems. 18. Which place is John's final stop?
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C. $219. C. Having a holiday. C. Watch her DVDs. C. in Kingston. C. Amy's son. A. California. B. New York. C. Texas. 19. What does John think of American people?
A. Peaceful. B. Beautiful. C. Wonderful. 20. What do we know about Charley?
A. He was a dog. B. He knew about the US. C. He hated the trip. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从所给的四个选项(A、B、C、D)中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将选项涂黑。
A
What to watch with your kids
WONDER PARK(PG)
\"Wonder Park\" in an animated cartoon about an imaginative girl named June(voiced by Brianna Denski), who's spent years dreaming up a magical amusement park named Wonderland with her mom(Jenifer Gamer). Their fancies become reality when June manages to protect the park from getting broken apart and sucked into scary purple clouds of darkness. The film underlines the importance of not letting fear stop you from being yourself and doing what you love.(93 minutes)
NANCY DREW AND THE HIDDEN STAIRCASE(PG)
\"Nancy Drew and the Hidden Staircase\" is based on a classic 1930 Nancy Drew mystery book. After her mother's death, 16-year-old Nancy Drew(Sophia Living)and her family move from Chicago to rural River Heights. Following a number of incidents, they meet various characters. The scariest moment an during what turns out to be a dream sequence(序列).(89 minutes) CAPTIVE STATE(PG-13)
\"Captive State\" is an alien-attack movie set in a future Chicago. Some humans try to support the conquering
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aliens, while others try to fight against them. The movie in more about its own big ideas than about characters or emotions, but it's smart enough that it should please most teen and adult sei-fi fans. John Goodman and Vera Farmiga co-star.(109 minutes) FIVE FEET APART(PG-13)
\"Five Feet Apart\" is based on the best-selling. YA novel about Will(Cole Sprouse)and Stella(Haley Lu Richardson), two hospitalized 17-year-olds with cystic fibrosis(囊性纤维化)who fall in love. Since the guideline for CF patients is that they should stay a minimum of six feet apart from each other due to the danger of cross-infection, the title refers to the one foot the pair \"take back\" to be a tiny bit closer as their love story develop. (115 minutes)
21. Which film attracts more sei-fi lovers?
A. Captive State. B. Five Feet Apart.
C. Wonder Park. D. Nancy Drew and the Hidden Staircase. 43 What does the title \"Five Feet Apart\" suggest?
A. A discouraging illness. B. A moving love story. C. A strict hospital rule. D. A best-selling novel. 23. What's the theme of the cartoon film? A. Strong action saving a sorrowful romance. B. Scary movements having great characters. C. Imaginative adventure dealing with worry and fear. D. Violent but smart alien attack appealing to audience.
B
On a mid-September day, scientists Chris Rimmer and Bill DeLuca drive to the top of the highest mountain in Vermont. They lower themselves down a sleep reeky path and hike through a forest until they find a good spot.
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Then they pull out nets and old ski racing poles, hoping to catch the blackpoll warbler to measure, tag(贴标签), and then release them in Mount Mansfield. It is on an open space in the woods that the nets are set.
The blackpoll warbler is a first-size bird with an unusually high-pitched song. They have a black cup, white cheeks and white wing bas. In the fall, thousands of these songbirds travel from their mountaintop summer homes in Canada, Alaska and New England to the northeast coast of the United States to prepare for a dangerous journey. For weeks, they fill their bellies with food until their bodies can hold no more. And one fall day, when the sky in clear and the wind is calm, they begin to fly. They fly east to catch the tail winds, then fly south.
The blackpolls' numbers are dropping so fast that they ae in danger. Thus, tracking their migration(迁徙)helps determine why that is. DeLuea and Rimmer work until dark placing nets and then sleep on the floor of a nearby hut. They return before sunrise and find dozens of blackpolls in the nets.
Rimmer holds a blackpoll, and closes a tiny aluminum band around its leg. Each band has a nine-digit number for tracking. They need to understand what's hurting them to protect them. When Rimmer is done, he opens his hand, and the songbird flies farther up the mountain and lands on a branch, facing south. This blackpoll's long journey will begin soon but not today. 24. Where do scientists set nets?
A. At mountain foot. B. Beside a rocky road. C. In a forest clearing. D. Around the tree branches. 25. What do we knew about the blackpoll warbler? A. They are small birds with soft voice. B. They are black songbirds with white wings. C. They travel to the US Northeast Coast for winter. D. They fly east with the winds before heading south. 26. Why are blackpolls tagged a small metal band?
A. To figure how they become fewer. B. To warn people not to hurt them.
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C. To remind them to return on time. D. To help them to find the direction. 27. What's the text mainly about? A. A long migration of blackpolls. B. An outdoor birdwatching activity. C. A rescue of an endangered bird. D. The achievements of two scientists.
C
In the first days after a team of 25 delivery robots landed on George Mason University's campus in January, they appeared to cause curious glances and many photos but not much else.
It was clear, officials said, that more time and more data would be necessary to understand whether the robots would change the campus culture or become forgettable. Two months later, an extra 1,500 breakfast orders have been delivered autonomously, according to the technologists of Sodexo, a company that manages food service for GMU and works closely with the robots.
Research has shown that up to 88 percent of college students skip breakfast, primarily because of lack of time, but that number is starting to turn around when delivery robots arrive on campus. They're constantly seen making the 15 minute trip from campus restaurant to a handful of nearby dorms, as well as to other buildings across campus, where students meet them. Two months later, breakfast has replaced dinner as the go-to meal for robot delivery.
Sodexo officials have noted that college students are main users of food delivery apps and place a high value on convenience and multiple options when they dine. During the morning hours, restaurant experts say, there is generally more emphasis(强调)on speed than any other part of the day. Combine college students' love of food delivery with messy morning routines, and perhaps they have a perfect recipe for robots to deliver in the campus.
The robots also provide campus officials with valuable data showing how meal plans are being used, which could lead to changes in how the university serves students over time. Sodexo technologists also announced Monday that a new team of more than 30 robots is launching at Northern Arizona University.
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28. Why don't most college students have breakfast according to the research? A. They are on diets. B. They have a tight schedule. C. The food doesn't agree with them. D. GMU doesn't offer delivery services.
29. What does the underlined word \"they\" in Para 4 refer to? A. College students. B. Campus officials. C. College professors. D. Restaurant managers. 30. What do we know about the first 25 delivery robots? A. They make timely deliveries. B. They were ignored at first. C. They mainly carry dinner at present.
D. They have changed the whole campus culture. 31. What's the beat title for the text? A. Delivery services grow fast in college. B, Breakfast in necessary for college students. C. Robots help with GMU's campus management. D. Delivery robots are changing students' eating habits.
D
Birth order, according to conventional wisdom, molds(塑造)personality; Firstborn children, secure with their place in the family, are expected to be mature and more responsible. Younger siblings(兄弟姐妹)work harder to
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get their parents' attention and take more risk. That's the central idea in psychologist Frank J. Sulloway's \"Born to Rebel\
However, birth order does not appear to influence personality in adults, according to several ambitious studies published in the past few years, which relied on larger data sets and more statistical methods than earlier reports.
Schmukle, a psychologist at University of Leipzig. and his colleagues, in a study published in 2015, assessed birth order for about 20,00 people from different countries and found that birth order did not change any of five broad personality traits(特征). A follow-up study on more specific characteristics, published by Sehmukle two years later, did not find any effect of birth order, either. Rodica Damian, a social psychologist at the University of Houston, studied more than 370,000 high school students and also concluded, in 2015, that birth order does not influence the Big Five.
In the Basel-Berlin Risk Study, one of the most exhaustive attempts to measure risk preference, researchers asked participants about driving too fast and other risky behaviors. \"None of these behavioral measures showed any convincing relationship between being a later-born and talking more risks,\" the study authors wrote.
We tend to confuse birth order and age.\" Some of the birth order effects that we observe in everyday life are not birth order effects, but actually are age effects,\" Schmukle said. \"It is not surprising that when you look at differences within families, firstborns are more responsible than later-borns. But take age out of the picture, and the effect disappears.\"
32. What's Sulloway's attitude to birth order effects?
A. Favorable. B. Cautious. C. Doubtful. D. Ambiguous. 33. What do the studies in the text have in common? A. They all proved the birth order effects. B. They were conducted by the same team. C. They concentrated on firstborn children. D. They based the results on statistical data.
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34. What may account for firstborn's being more responsible? A. Birth order. B. Risky behaviors. C. Age effects. D. Parents' attention. 35. How does the author support the main viewpoint?
A. By giving examples. B. By listing findings. C. By making comparisons. D. By showing instructions. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Are you living in the present?
The idea of being present—being more aware of life as it happens—may seem impossible to those who are used to sacrificing living for achieving their goals. 36 Being present is the only way to enjoy life to the fullest. These tips turn everyday activities into opportunities to be mindful.
Stop worrying about the future. 37 Learn to recognize when you're doing this, and then practice bringing yourself back to the present. Just focus on what you're doing right now. Enjoy the present moment.
38 You want to do one task at a time, but also rush that task. Instead, take your time and make your actions deliberate, not rushed and random. It takes practice, but it helps you focus on the task.
Do less. If you do less, you can do those things more slowly, more completely and with more concentration. But you're busy and you can't possibly do less, right? You can. It's a matter of figuring out what's important. 39
Put space between things. It's a way of managing your, schedule so that you always have time to complete each task. Avoid arranging things close together. 40 That gives you a more relaxed plan, and leaves space in ease one task takes longer than you planed.
By being present, you enjoy anything you're doing more. Even things you might thing boring, such as housework, can be amazing if you truly present. It takes practice, but it's incredible.
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A. Do one thing at a time. B. Act slowly and deliberately.
C. Are you constantly worrying about the future? D. And don't waste time on the meaningless thing. E. The most important thing is to keep practicing. F. Instead, leave rooms between things on your schedule. G. In fact, you are more productive when you are present. 第三部分 英语如识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文。从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空自处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Last week, my 9-year-old son Shine and I were grocery shopping. At the checkout, a mother was trying to 41 her bill, but she didn't have enough money for her milk and cheese. The grocery store manager 42 the items from her cart and carried them away to the 43 section. I 44 to my son and told him to run and get the manager back with the items. He was 45 . He didn't understand me. I was trying to do a 46 act of kindness, but it went wrong.
The lady left with her son and 47 groceries than she had planned. I told the checkout guy to charge me 48 her milk and cheese and that we'd run to the parking lot and catch her. He immediately called 49 back, rang up my items and hers and my son and I ran to the parking lot. But the mom and her son were 50 in 60 seconds and with them went my chance to gift these 51 but necessary items.
I kept thinking about my hesitation, because I didn't want to 52 her, didn't want to cause a surprise…All reasons my mind was working to convince me to 53 a necessary kindness. 54 I didn't believe any of them, processing them slowed me down.
So I ask myself and you dear friends, if we allow our 55 to slow our actions towards acting for love and 最新 WORD 可修改
kindness, is it 56 an act of kindness? I think I try to make kindness from thin story only to get the possibility of my son and I forgiving ourselves for our delay. Perhaps because of this our future acts will be 57 delivered.
I send my 58 and intend kindness to that mama and her little one. May they have more than they 59 this week. I am deeply grateful for the lesson they taught me: 60 too, is an act of kindness. 41. A. send B. pay C. refuse 42. A. removed B. tasted C. bought 43. A. furniture B. bakery C. refrigerator 44. A. whispered B. waved C. shouted 45. A. frightened B. confused C. ashamed 46. A. well-designed B. well-prepared C. ridiculous 47. A. enough B. more C. fewer 48. A. with B. of C. for 49. A. the lady B. the manager C. her son 50. A. caught B. found C. back 51. A. rare B. heavy C. expensive 52. A. embarrass B. please C. satisfy 53. A. stick to B. carry on C. try out 54. A. Although B. When C. Since 55. A. words B. hesitations C. plans 56. A. then B. just C. even 57. A. quickly B. honestly C. secretly 最新 WORD 可修改
D. sign D. replaced D fruit D. nodded D. excited D. random D. cheaper D. about D.my son D. gone D. little D. calm D. hold back D. Unless D. dreams D. still D. occasionally
58. A. hate B. envy C. love D. respect 59. A. need B. learn C. donate D. handle
60. A. self-defence B. self-development C. self-forgiveness D. self-doubt 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
A name is more than just a word. A self-given name may show a person's 61 (believe)or chosen identity. Everyone has the right to have their name 62 (pronounce)correctly. In the long run, a mispronounced name might cause some people to separate themselves 63 the roots. In order to avoid this, many international students 64 (live)in the U. S. now chose English names.
Everyone makes 65 (mistake), and not everyone can get a name right on the first try. Mispronouncing a name 66 (frequent), however, shows a lack of effort. When meeting someone for the first time, make sure that the name 67 (hear)correctly om the spot. 68 doesn't take a lot to simply repeat the name back. Spell it out. Write it down. Do everything 69 can be done to get the same right. Making the effort to correctly pronounce names 70 (be)an essential part of cultural competence. 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同学们交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的词用斜线(\\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 注意:
1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
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2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Last summer, my parents and I took a trip to Shanghai, one of the popular cities in the world. Our first destination was Shanghai Disneyland, which we experienced a magical world. My dream came true—I met a number of Disney cartoon character: To our disappointment, there were such many tourists that we had to push their way to go through the crowd. The next day, we paid a visit to Oriental Pearl Radio and TV Tower, Standing on the top of a tower with my family, I have a feeling of excitement. We took many pictures in there.
Tired and happy, I really enjoyed the two-day trip. 第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华,你的美国朋友Jim就读于合肥某国际李校。他想了解中国文化,特别是戏曲文化。7月5日下午3:00在合肥大剧院将上演黄梅戏《天仙配》。请你根据以下提示,用英语给Jim写一封电子邮件,邀请他一起观看演出。 •提出邀请并简述原因;
•简介《天仙配》(Marriage of the Fairy Princess); •请求对方回复。 注意:1.词数100左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; 3.开头和结尾已给出,但不计入总词数。 Dear Jim,
How is it going?
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Yours, Li Hua
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